Yeah, Sparta had a dual monarchy, I know. But you are missing the point (or, more accurately, twisting things to fit your narrative).
I think you may be missing my point. There are examples of kings in Greece both before and after Alexander.
No, the Macedonians were not Slavs, I've never said that. What I am saying is that the Macedonians were not Greeks! You are Greek; writing with an agenda, but it won't work. Alexander adopted very un-Greek things like declaring himself a living god. That's something that Macedonians and Greeks rejected completely, but that Persians accepted.
Alexander created a hybrid usually referred to by historians as "Hellenistic." He adopted many foreign customs including the blasphemous claim to deity (original an Egyptian custom before the Persians borrowed it). The common language for this hybrid was Koine Greek, a descendent of Attic Greek. It is from this hybrid culture that modern Greek culture descends. The modern state of Greece has alternated between a monarchy (after the Macedonian/Byzantine custom) and a republic (after the pre-Hellenistic Greek custom). I am actually an Irish American who loves history.
He did send the spoils of conquest 'back to the Greeks'. How did you ever come of with that? Were Greek auxiliaries looting along the way and you're trying to justify it? Ugh.
Of course I don't justify it. It is in fact astounding to me that either the Greeks or the Macedonians would try to claim such a brutal and arrogant a conqueror as Alexander to be one of their own.
There is dispute over the language, but the Greeks did not consider Macedonians to be Greek! Their cultures were different-very different. The Athenian kings were in the past by the time Alexander showed up. The Macedonians conquered Greece. As for the language, Spain annexed Portugal; the languages share some things, but Portuguese and Spanish are distinct languages and they belong to distinct cultures. The Portuguese and not Spaniards! To call the language the Macedonians spoke 'an aberrant form of Greek' is like calling Portuguese and aberrant form of Spanish.
The point is that Macedonian Greek was a closely related language to Attic Greek the ancestor of Modern Greek. It is not related to Slavic Macedonian.
You might make an equally good case that the Spartans were no Greeks. The Spartans were descendent of the Dorians, who were originally barbarian non-Greek-speaking invaders of Greece. The Spartans had kings, which was unusual among the Greeks. The Spartans also spoke the highly divergent Dorian Greek dialect, which the Athenians considered to be an aberrant form of Greek.
However I am aware of no ancient text in which either the Spartans or the Macedonians are referred to as
Barbaroi (foreigners). Instead we find cases like the Roman historian Livy, who wrote that the Aetolians, Acarnanians and Macedonians had been "men of the same language"
You are wrong. And the world knows you are wrong.
Hundreds or thousands of Greeks disagree with you. Even an appeal to popular opinion is a fallacy in itself. But in this case it is a highly divisive issue. The world does not agree.