This paper is so awful that it actually gives me a headache to readridgel wrote: > John, here's a detailed argument for hyperinflation by John
> Williams, a respected PhD economist that worked advising industry
> for many years. He now produces a set of alternative measures of
> unemployment, inflation, and GDP growth, largely using current BLS
> raw data, but calculated using older formulas. The official
> formulas to calculate unemployment and inflation have changed
> several times since 1980, always in the direction of showing lower
> unemployment and lower inflation. His site has a thorough
> explanation.
> http://www.shadowstats.com/article/hyperinflation
> The United States has experienced two bouts of hyperinflation,
> where the underlying currency became worthless. The first the
> paper currency issued at the time of the Revolutionary war. The
> second was the paper currency issued by the South during the Civil
> war. The paper currency in the North wasn't far behind, although
> it was eventually redeemed many years later.
> The United States has experience one run of deflation, in the
> 1930s. During that time the domestic currency was unlinked from
> the gold standard, however, International Trade remained in gold.
it. (There are many published papers today in that category.) I'll
just comment on a couple of things.
Let's start with the consumer inflation graph, 1665-2007:

This is a typical trick of people who want to lie with statistics to
"prove' a particular kind of point.
The CPI is an exponential growth trend value, and to display it over 3
1/2 centuries with a linear y-axis is completely meaningless, but it
permits the author to claim that the CPI was essentially flat for 3
centuries, but then shot up in the last few decades.
You say that John Williams is "a respected PhD economist." So did he
post this graph because he doesn't understand exponential growth, or
did he do it to intentionally deceive? Is he a moron or a liar? Or
both? I report, you decide.
To show how the CPI should be displayed, here for example, is a graph
that I posted in 2003:

Using a logarithmic scale makes it much less dramatic but also shows
that most of what Williams is saying is nonsense. (My graph also
shows that the CPI has been above trend since the 1970s, and by the
Law of Mean Reversion is due to fall sharply.)
Now let's turn to his treatment of the "gold standard."
He says, "Aside from minor average annual price level declines in 1944
and 1955, the United States has not seen a deflationary period in
consumer prices since before World War II. The reason for this is the
same as to why there has not been a formal depression since before
World War II: the abandonment of the gold standard and recognition by
the Federal Reserve of the impact of monetary policy — free of
gold-standard system restraints — on the economy."
I've answered this gold standard nonsense many times.
It makes as much sense to talk about a policy based on a gold standard
today as it does to determine energy policy based on the supply of
whale oil, or to determine transportation policy based on the price of
horse feed.
A gold standard may have made sense in past centuries, when the only
money was minted coins or paper notes. But today, coins and paper
currency are only a tiny part of the the available money. There are
hundreds of trillions of dollars of securities in portfolios around
the world, and the Fed has only the tiniest effect on the total money
supply. So a gold standard is totally meaningless today.
Even in the 1930s, the gold standard was meaningless, because the US
was already creating money through debt. There's no way to enforce a
gold standard, because there's no way to prove the effect that a
change in the Fed funding rate will affect the money supply. There's
no way to say, "Such and such a policy violates the gold standard."
So the Fed in the 1930s could have done anything it wanted, and there
were no restrictions on the Fed.
Furthermore, even if there HAD been some restriction, the Congress
would simply have removed the restriction or repealed the gold
standard entirely. They would not have allowed millions of people to
starve and go homeless just because of some technical requirement that
could be easily removed or ignored.
If a country wants to inflate its currency, it just does so. If it's
on a gold standard, it just raises the price of gold, or it refuses to
convert currency to gold. FDR did both. Inflating the currency is a
political decision, and a "gold standard" is no more relevant than
whether or not it's raining.
Williams doesn't explain why inflation has been close to zero in the
2000s decade, when we've been clearly off the gold standard. By his
reasoning, we should have had high inflation, but we didn't.
Let's go on.
He says, "Although the U.S, government faces ultimate insolvency, it
has the same way out taken by most countries faced with bankruptcy. It
can print whatever money it needs to create, in order to meet its
obligations. The effect of such action is a runaway inflation — a
hyperinflation — with a resulting, effective full debasement of the
U.S. dollar, the world’s reserve currency. The magnitude of the loss
of the U.S. dollar’s purchasing power in the last 75 years now has the
potential of being replicated within a few days or weeks."
This is utter nonsense. He uses the phrase "print money," as if the
government is going to print a trillion dollar bills to pay off its
debt, and deliver them on a boat to China.
That's not how money is created today. Money is created today by
creating debt. The Fed is doing that, but anyone can do it.
Suppose I have $1000 and you have nothing, so we have $1000 between
us. I lend you the $1000, and you give me an IOU saying, "Pay to
bearer $1000," with your signature. Then you have $1000 cash, and I
have a $1000 security, so we've both "printed" $1000 in new money.
The Fed plays only a small part in money creation.
This is why I have so little patience with people like Williams who
make money by purveying this nonsense. Is he a moron or a liar?
I'll take one more or his arguments, on the Weimar Republic and
Zimbabwe.
Williams has a 2010 addendum on this:
http://www.shadowstats.com/article/hyperinflation-2010
He has some tear-jerking stories to gain our sympathy: "It was
horrible. Horrible! Like lightning it struck. No one was prepared. You
cannot imagine the rapidity with which the whole thing happened. The
shelves in the grocery stores were empty. You could buy nothing with
your paper money."
And so we come back full circle. If they couldn't buy anything with
paper money, why not use a credit card? Oh yeah, they only "printed
money" in those days, and didn't create it through debt. That's why
this whole comparison is so moronic.
"Printing money" in the Weimar and Zimbabwe cases are like pouring
buckets of water into a bathtub (with the stopper in). Sooner or
later, the bathtub is going to overflow.
But the US dollar today is a worldwide reserve currency, with over a
quadrillion dollars in securities in portfolios around the world. The
Fed is not "printing money." It's using debt to create money, and
that makes it no different than any investment bank that uses debt to
create money. What the Fed is doing today is like pouring buckets of
water into the ocean -- it has no effect at all.
The reason for hyperinflation in Weimar and Zimbabwe is because there
was a strong political desire to hyperinflate. This was most obvious
in the Weimar case, where reparations were to be made in marks,
unadjusted for inflation. Obviously, the easiest way to pay
reparations was simply to print the marks and make the payments with
the printed marks.
As I mentioned recently in the web log, Ben Bernanke gave a good
reason why there's no real political motivation for inflating the US
currency: Because almost every major government expense, including
social security and medicare, is indexed to inflation, so inflating
the currency would change nothing.
John