Higgenbotham wrote:
> If you've uniquely shown something, then by default you would be
> the only one able to uniquely prove or disprove the rhetorical
> question you are asking.
I have no idea what this means. The only response I can give is that
pretty much all the work that I've done has appeared in the 3 million+
words in thousands of articles that I've posted on this web site.
Furthermore, I've been given help, sometimes unwittingly, by a number
of people, including yourself, Matt Ignal, Vince Cate, Mike Alexander
and Sean Love. Some of the best help has come from people who have
tried to prove that I'm wrong.
Higgenbotham wrote:
> If a government or civilization is collapsing during a crisis
> period rather than regenerating, I don't know how that helps
> ensure a deflationary outcome. During the 14th Century collapse,
> due to the many small political units, there were some bond
> markets that held together through the entire collapse. Such would
> almost certainly be the case today if the US states were sovereign
> and independent - as stated previously, North Dakota and Texas
> would probably stay solvent. Norway and Singapore may remain
> solvent. I've previously mentioned that there were periods during
> the long decline of Rome where things turned around temporarily
> but those could not have been crisis periods.
I've actually never claimed that there's always deflation during all
generational crisis eras. I was genuinely wondering if you had data
that showed an example of inflation during a generational crisis era.
And in response to Vince's query, I don't have any historical data on
CPI other than Shiller's data for the last century in America.
However, I SUSPECT that there's always deflation during a crisis
period, unless the country's entire finance infrastructure is
destroyed -- and I've said that the same thing might happen in America
if China's war campaign is successful.
The theoretical reason why there's always deflation is because debt
becomes worthless, which reduces the money supply, and because no one
wants to buy anything but bare necessities and things needed for
survival - like food. So the only money available is the cash you
have, or perhaps only gold if that's the only thing that can be
trusted. Prices spike for necessities like food, but prices collapse
for most other things because they aren't needed for survival. The
net effect is that only "trusted money" can be used for transactions,
which makes trusted money extremely valuable (deflationary), and the
"net CPI" of survival and non-survival items collapses (deflationary).
But I'll give you an example of a crisis era where I've wondered
whether there might have been inflation -- the War of the Spanish
Succession. And the reason that I've wondered is that the war
climaxed with the Battle of Malplaquet in 1709, but the financial
crisis didn't climax until 1721. I know that you've studied this
period in depth, and perhaps you could comment on what happened.
Also what happened with the first portion of the Hundred Years
War, which climaxed with the Battle of Poitiers in 1356? You've
studied the banking collapse that preceded. Wasn't that a
deflationary period?
If there ARE examples of hyperinflation during crisis eras, then it
would be very interesting to study them and try to figure out what
makes them different from other examples.
John